Cellular Processes - GRE
Card 0 of 332
Which of the following is a common second messenger used in signal transduction pathways?
Which of the following is a common second messenger used in signal transduction pathways?
Second messengers are the molecules in a signal transduction pathway that will activate an intracellular response. Epinephrine is a hormone that will bind a receptor on the exoplasmic face of the cell, making is a first messenger. G
subunits interact with adaptor proteins that will then stimulate the production of second messengers. Receptor tyrosine kinases are examples of receptor proteins that will bind first messengers. cAMP, however, is a widely used second messenger that is involved in the activation of many pathways and signal amplification in the cytosol.
Second messengers are the molecules in a signal transduction pathway that will activate an intracellular response. Epinephrine is a hormone that will bind a receptor on the exoplasmic face of the cell, making is a first messenger. G subunits interact with adaptor proteins that will then stimulate the production of second messengers. Receptor tyrosine kinases are examples of receptor proteins that will bind first messengers. cAMP, however, is a widely used second messenger that is involved in the activation of many pathways and signal amplification in the cytosol.
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Which of the following signaling molecules does not elicit a second messenger response inside cells?
Which of the following signaling molecules does not elicit a second messenger response inside cells?
A second messenger response is created in cells that use signal transduction, meaning that the signaling molecules attach to a receptor on the outside of the cell. Steroid hormones are largely nonpolar, and can enter the cell in order to affect cellular processes at the level of transcription. As a result, they do not need to rely on second messenger pathways in order to elicit a response.
A second messenger response is created in cells that use signal transduction, meaning that the signaling molecules attach to a receptor on the outside of the cell. Steroid hormones are largely nonpolar, and can enter the cell in order to affect cellular processes at the level of transcription. As a result, they do not need to rely on second messenger pathways in order to elicit a response.
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Which of the following mutations in the EGF pathway could lead to increased proliferation of cells?
Which of the following mutations in the EGF pathway could lead to increased proliferation of cells?
The phosphorylation of Erk is the final step of the protein cascade of EGF pathway, and phosphorylated Erk enters the nucleus to increase transcription of genes that induce proliferation. If Erk is constitutively active, it will likely lead to higher proliferation rate.
Preventing EGF from binding to EGFR or disrupting EGFR's ability to enter the membrane would abolish EGF pathway activity and reduce proliferation. Likewise, abolishing kinase activity of RAF would terminate the signal transduction and lead to reduced proliferation.
The phosphorylation of Erk is the final step of the protein cascade of EGF pathway, and phosphorylated Erk enters the nucleus to increase transcription of genes that induce proliferation. If Erk is constitutively active, it will likely lead to higher proliferation rate.
Preventing EGF from binding to EGFR or disrupting EGFR's ability to enter the membrane would abolish EGF pathway activity and reduce proliferation. Likewise, abolishing kinase activity of RAF would terminate the signal transduction and lead to reduced proliferation.
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Production of which of the following cytokines is stimulated when the
concentration decreases in the circulatory system?
Production of which of the following cytokines is stimulated when the concentration decreases in the circulatory system?
Erythropoietin, released by the kidney, stimulates the production of red blood cells, which becomes necessary if circulating
has decreased. Tumor necrosis factor stimulates systemic inflammation and regulates the immune system. Transforming growth factor beta 1 controls cell growth, proliferation, differentiation and other processes. Interferon type II modulates immune functions. Interleukin 2 also modulates the immune cells.
Erythropoietin, released by the kidney, stimulates the production of red blood cells, which becomes necessary if circulating has decreased. Tumor necrosis factor stimulates systemic inflammation and regulates the immune system. Transforming growth factor beta 1 controls cell growth, proliferation, differentiation and other processes. Interferon type II modulates immune functions. Interleukin 2 also modulates the immune cells.
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Which of the following growth factors is primarily produced by the kidney and is essential for the production of red blood cells?
Which of the following growth factors is primarily produced by the kidney and is essential for the production of red blood cells?
Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein that is crucial for the production of red blood cells, a process also called "erythropoiesis." Each of the other answers contains a growth factor, but none of these have a primary function in red blood cell production.
Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein that is crucial for the production of red blood cells, a process also called "erythropoiesis." Each of the other answers contains a growth factor, but none of these have a primary function in red blood cell production.
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How do master regulators, which are transcription factors, establish cell subtypes and cell subtype-specific gene expression?
How do master regulators, which are transcription factors, establish cell subtypes and cell subtype-specific gene expression?
The correct answer is master regulators promote the deposition of methyl or acetyl groups to mark inactive or active enhancers. Master regulators bind enhancer regions that have been created by pioneer factors to establish the chromatin state of the cell by deposition of methyl or acetyl groups on chromatin. Methylation correlates with inactive enhancers, whereas acetylation correlates with active enhancers. The fingerprint of active/inactive enhancers and its effect on gene expression establishes cell subtypes. Some, but not all master regulators function as pioneer factors to bind nucleosome rich DNA to promote euchromatin formation.
The correct answer is master regulators promote the deposition of methyl or acetyl groups to mark inactive or active enhancers. Master regulators bind enhancer regions that have been created by pioneer factors to establish the chromatin state of the cell by deposition of methyl or acetyl groups on chromatin. Methylation correlates with inactive enhancers, whereas acetylation correlates with active enhancers. The fingerprint of active/inactive enhancers and its effect on gene expression establishes cell subtypes. Some, but not all master regulators function as pioneer factors to bind nucleosome rich DNA to promote euchromatin formation.
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How do Bax and Bak promote cell death?
How do Bax and Bak promote cell death?
Bax and Bak dimerize to form a pore in the mitochondria outer membrane, which allows cytochrome c to escape into the cytosol. When cytochrome c is found in the cytosol, procaspase becomes activated and is cleaved into caspase. Once the caspase cascade begins the cell is destined for death.
Bax and Bak have nothing to do with the apoptosome and, while Bcl2 does block Bax and Bak from dimerizing, Bax and Bak do not prevent the action of Bcl2.
Bax and Bak dimerize to form a pore in the mitochondria outer membrane, which allows cytochrome c to escape into the cytosol. When cytochrome c is found in the cytosol, procaspase becomes activated and is cleaved into caspase. Once the caspase cascade begins the cell is destined for death.
Bax and Bak have nothing to do with the apoptosome and, while Bcl2 does block Bax and Bak from dimerizing, Bax and Bak do not prevent the action of Bcl2.
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One commonly studied outcome of G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) activation is the activation of phospholipase C (PLC). What two important second messengers are formed when PLC cleaves phosphoinositide-4,5-bisphosphate
?
One commonly studied outcome of G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) activation is the activation of phospholipase C (PLC). What two important second messengers are formed when PLC cleaves phosphoinositide-4,5-bisphosphate ?
Interactions between
,
,
, and PKC do indeed occur downstream of activation of PLC to contribute to numerous downstream cascades primarily initiated by protein kinase C (PKC). However, it is important to understand that the second messengers are
and
, which are specifically formed by the cleavage of
, and each of the other molecules is considered an effector of those second messengers in this context.
Interactions between ,
,
, and PKC do indeed occur downstream of activation of PLC to contribute to numerous downstream cascades primarily initiated by protein kinase C (PKC). However, it is important to understand that the second messengers are
and
, which are specifically formed by the cleavage of
, and each of the other molecules is considered an effector of those second messengers in this context.
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What is the key functional difference between GEFs (guanine nucleotide exchange factors) and GAPs (GTPase activating proteins)?
What is the key functional difference between GEFs (guanine nucleotide exchange factors) and GAPs (GTPase activating proteins)?
A GEF activates a small GTPase by exchanging a bound GDP (which confers an inactive state) for a GTP (which is higher energy, and activates the protein). A GAP performs the opposite; GAPs enhance the intrinsic GTPase activity of the small GTPase, which causes hydrolysis of the GTP on the active protein, thus converting it back to GDP and an inactive state.
A GEF activates a small GTPase by exchanging a bound GDP (which confers an inactive state) for a GTP (which is higher energy, and activates the protein). A GAP performs the opposite; GAPs enhance the intrinsic GTPase activity of the small GTPase, which causes hydrolysis of the GTP on the active protein, thus converting it back to GDP and an inactive state.
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What provides the necessary information to specify the three dimensional shape of proteins?
What provides the necessary information to specify the three dimensional shape of proteins?
Proteins have different level of protein structure, termed primary, secondary, and tertiary (quarternary is also a type in certain proteins). The 3D shape of proteins is largely due to the tertiary structure of a protein. This level is dictated by the specific amino acid sequence of the protein.
Proteins have different level of protein structure, termed primary, secondary, and tertiary (quarternary is also a type in certain proteins). The 3D shape of proteins is largely due to the tertiary structure of a protein. This level is dictated by the specific amino acid sequence of the protein.
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Which of the following is a common post-translational modification used to target proteins to the lysosome?
Which of the following is a common post-translational modification used to target proteins to the lysosome?
Mannose-6-phosphate is a post-translational modification found on proteins important to the functionality of the lysosome (such as acid hydrolases). Ubiquination is a signal for proteins to be brought to the proteosome and degraded. Myristoylation involves the addition of a fatty acid chain, and is often seen in proteins targeted to the plasma membrane. Acetylation is a common modification found on histones that can help make genes transcriptionally active.
Mannose-6-phosphate is a post-translational modification found on proteins important to the functionality of the lysosome (such as acid hydrolases). Ubiquination is a signal for proteins to be brought to the proteosome and degraded. Myristoylation involves the addition of a fatty acid chain, and is often seen in proteins targeted to the plasma membrane. Acetylation is a common modification found on histones that can help make genes transcriptionally active.
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An isomerase                     .
An isomerase                     .
An isomerase is an enzyme that catalyzes the rearrangement of bonds in a single molecule. For example glucose-6-phosphate isomerase catalyzes the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into fructose-6-phosphate during glycolysis.
A hydrolase catalyzes a hydrolytic cleavage reaction, a kinase catalyzes the addition of a phosphate group, and a polymerase catalyzes polymerization reactions.
An isomerase is an enzyme that catalyzes the rearrangement of bonds in a single molecule. For example glucose-6-phosphate isomerase catalyzes the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into fructose-6-phosphate during glycolysis.
A hydrolase catalyzes a hydrolytic cleavage reaction, a kinase catalyzes the addition of a phosphate group, and a polymerase catalyzes polymerization reactions.
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Which of the following is a protein modification that can initiate the degradation of the modified protein?
Which of the following is a protein modification that can initiate the degradation of the modified protein?
The correct answer is ubiquitination. Ubiquitin is added to the substrate protein to target the protein for degradation by the proteasome, serving as an efficient mechansim to control cellular protein levels. Myristoylation, palmitoylation, isoprenylation, and glycosylation are all post-translational protein modifications that involve the addition of a 14-carbon saturated acid, a 16-carbon saturated acid, an isoprenoid group, and a glycosyl group, respectively. These modifications have diverse functions, however, do not initiate the degradation of the protein.
The correct answer is ubiquitination. Ubiquitin is added to the substrate protein to target the protein for degradation by the proteasome, serving as an efficient mechansim to control cellular protein levels. Myristoylation, palmitoylation, isoprenylation, and glycosylation are all post-translational protein modifications that involve the addition of a 14-carbon saturated acid, a 16-carbon saturated acid, an isoprenoid group, and a glycosyl group, respectively. These modifications have diverse functions, however, do not initiate the degradation of the protein.
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Lipidation is a post-translational modification to a protein that often targets that protein to the plasma membrane. Knowing that lipidation involves covalent bonding of a fatty acid group to a protein, which of the following molecules would be most likely to be attached to a protein for anchorage to a membrane?
Lipidation is a post-translational modification to a protein that often targets that protein to the plasma membrane. Knowing that lipidation involves covalent bonding of a fatty acid group to a protein, which of the following molecules would be most likely to be attached to a protein for anchorage to a membrane?
While each of these molecules could potentially be bound to a protein as a post-translational modification, the only one listed that is a fatty acid is palmitate. Thus, this is the correct answer.
While each of these molecules could potentially be bound to a protein as a post-translational modification, the only one listed that is a fatty acid is palmitate. Thus, this is the correct answer.
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In order for kinases to modify their substrates, what small molecule is needed for this reversible post-translational modification?
In order for kinases to modify their substrates, what small molecule is needed for this reversible post-translational modification?
The correct answer is adenosine triphosphate (ATP). In order to phosphorylate a substrate, kinases catalyze the hydrolysis of ATP to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate. This released phosphate by the hydrolysis reaction is covalently added to an amino acid residue on the substrate. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate, flavin adenine dinucleotide, and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide are proton carriers. Guanine nucleotide exchange factor aids in exchanging guanine diphosphate for guanine triphosphate in a substrate.
The correct answer is adenosine triphosphate (ATP). In order to phosphorylate a substrate, kinases catalyze the hydrolysis of ATP to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate. This released phosphate by the hydrolysis reaction is covalently added to an amino acid residue on the substrate. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate, flavin adenine dinucleotide, and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide are proton carriers. Guanine nucleotide exchange factor aids in exchanging guanine diphosphate for guanine triphosphate in a substrate.
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Ubiquitination of proteins is a form of post-translational modification on proteins. Which of the following cellular processes is protein ubiquitination not part of?
Ubiquitination of proteins is a form of post-translational modification on proteins. Which of the following cellular processes is protein ubiquitination not part of?
The correct answer is all of the answers are cellular processes in which ubiquitination is involved. Post-translational ubiquitination of proteins initiates many cellular processes by altering protein activity and the proteins that interact with the ubiquitinated protein.
The correct answer is all of the answers are cellular processes in which ubiquitination is involved. Post-translational ubiquitination of proteins initiates many cellular processes by altering protein activity and the proteins that interact with the ubiquitinated protein.
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What type of enzyme adds a phosphate group to a protein?
What type of enzyme adds a phosphate group to a protein?
A kinase is an enzyme that adds a phosphate group. Do not get this confused with a phosphatase. A phosphatase is an enzyme that removes a phosphate group. The other enzymes listed do not deal with the addition or removal of a phosphate group from a protein.
A kinase is an enzyme that adds a phosphate group. Do not get this confused with a phosphatase. A phosphatase is an enzyme that removes a phosphate group. The other enzymes listed do not deal with the addition or removal of a phosphate group from a protein.
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Which of the following hormones will elicit a response in cells by attaching to a membrane bound receptor?
Which of the following hormones will elicit a response in cells by attaching to a membrane bound receptor?
Before answering this question, consider what types of hormones would not attach to a membrane bound receptor. Steroid hormones can simply diffuse through the plasma membrane, so they do not need to attach to a receptor there. Cortisol, testosterone, and estrogen are all steroid hormones. This leaves insulin as the only acceptable answer. In fact, insulin attaches to a receptor tyrosine kinase on the outside of cells.
Before answering this question, consider what types of hormones would not attach to a membrane bound receptor. Steroid hormones can simply diffuse through the plasma membrane, so they do not need to attach to a receptor there. Cortisol, testosterone, and estrogen are all steroid hormones. This leaves insulin as the only acceptable answer. In fact, insulin attaches to a receptor tyrosine kinase on the outside of cells.
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During which of the following stages of meiosis is the ploidy of the cell equal to n (haploid)?
I. Telophase I, after nuclear envelopes reform
II. Metaphase II, while chromosomes are lined up on the equatorial plate
III. Anaphase II, immediately after separation of sister chromatids
IV. Metaphase I, while chromosomes are lined up on the equatorial plate
During which of the following stages of meiosis is the ploidy of the cell equal to n (haploid)?
I. Telophase I, after nuclear envelopes reform
II. Metaphase II, while chromosomes are lined up on the equatorial plate
III. Anaphase II, immediately after separation of sister chromatids
IV. Metaphase I, while chromosomes are lined up on the equatorial plate
This question is a little tricky and depends entirely on the definition of when something is officially a chromosome. A sister chromatid is not officially considered a chromosome until being separated from its partner.
During metaphase I, the homologous chromosomes have yet to separate, so ploidy is still 2n (diploid). Statement IV is false.
During telophase I, the homologous chromosomes have separated and the nuclear envelopes have reformed, effectively forming two haploid nuclei during telophase I. Statement I is true.
During metaphase II, the sister chromatids are still attached, so the cells are still haploid. Statement II is true.
During anaphase II, however, immediately after the sister chromatids are separated they are now considered individual chromosomes. This effectively increases ploidy back to 2n until the nuclear envelopes reform. Statement III is false.
This question is a little tricky and depends entirely on the definition of when something is officially a chromosome. A sister chromatid is not officially considered a chromosome until being separated from its partner.
During metaphase I, the homologous chromosomes have yet to separate, so ploidy is still 2n (diploid). Statement IV is false.
During telophase I, the homologous chromosomes have separated and the nuclear envelopes have reformed, effectively forming two haploid nuclei during telophase I. Statement I is true.
During metaphase II, the sister chromatids are still attached, so the cells are still haploid. Statement II is true.
During anaphase II, however, immediately after the sister chromatids are separated they are now considered individual chromosomes. This effectively increases ploidy back to 2n until the nuclear envelopes reform. Statement III is false.
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A normal somatic human cell contains 46 chromosomes. During anaphase of meiosis I, prior to reformation of the nuclear envelope, how many chromosomes are present in a human cell?
A normal somatic human cell contains 46 chromosomes. During anaphase of meiosis I, prior to reformation of the nuclear envelope, how many chromosomes are present in a human cell?
For this question it is important to know the distinction between the genetic material being separated in meiosis I versus meiosis II. During meiosis I homologous chromosomes are separated, and during meiosis II sister chromatids are separated. Reduction of ploidy therefore occurs during telophase I, after the nuclear envelope reforms (due to the segregation of homologous chromosomes). During anaphase I there are technically still 46 chromosomes in the cell, even though each contains two sister chromatids and have been pulled to different regions of the cell. The total amount of genetic material has not changed.
Note that during anaphase of meiosis II ploidy is also at 46 chromosomes. At this point, sister chromatids have been separated from each of the 23 chromosomes present, resulting in 46 separate genetic units. The cell is still considered haploid, since the homologous chromosomes are not present.
For this question it is important to know the distinction between the genetic material being separated in meiosis I versus meiosis II. During meiosis I homologous chromosomes are separated, and during meiosis II sister chromatids are separated. Reduction of ploidy therefore occurs during telophase I, after the nuclear envelope reforms (due to the segregation of homologous chromosomes). During anaphase I there are technically still 46 chromosomes in the cell, even though each contains two sister chromatids and have been pulled to different regions of the cell. The total amount of genetic material has not changed.
Note that during anaphase of meiosis II ploidy is also at 46 chromosomes. At this point, sister chromatids have been separated from each of the 23 chromosomes present, resulting in 46 separate genetic units. The cell is still considered haploid, since the homologous chromosomes are not present.
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