Pharmacogenomics

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NAPLEX › Pharmacogenomics

Questions 1 - 10
1

A 27-year-old Southeast Asian female (55 kg) is prescribed carbamazepine for trigeminal neuralgia. Current medications: none. Pharmacogenomic results: HLA-B*15:02 positive. Labs: serum creatinine 0.7 mg/dL, alanine aminotransferase 16 units/L. Allergies: none. Which medication is most appropriate for this patient given their genetic profile?

Carbamazepine 200 mg by mouth twice daily with slow titration

Gabapentin 300 mg by mouth three times daily as an alternative to carbamazepine

Carbamazepine 100 mg by mouth daily because lowering the dose prevents Stevens-Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis

Oxcarbazepine 300 mg by mouth twice daily because it avoids HLA-associated rash risk

Explanation

This question tests the link between HLA-B15:02 and carbamazepine-induced severe cutaneous reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome in certain populations. The key genetic factor is the patient's positive HLA-B15:02 status, which markedly elevates the risk of life-threatening reactions to carbamazepine, especially in Southeast Asians. Gabapentin 300 mg by mouth three times daily as an alternative to carbamazepine is the best choice because it avoids the HLA-associated risk while providing effective treatment for trigeminal neuralgia. Carbamazepine 200 mg twice daily is incorrect as positivity contraindicates its use; oxcarbazepine is suboptimal because it carries a similar, though lower, risk of cross-reactivity. Carbamazepine 100 mg daily is inappropriate as dose reduction does not eliminate the genetic risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome. A clinical pearl is to screen for HLA-B*15:02 in Asian patients before carbamazepine or oxcarbazepine initiation. For decision-making, if positive, select non-aromatic anticonvulsants like gabapentin or pregabalin, and educate on rash monitoring.

2

A 33-year-old White male (82 kg) is being started on azathioprine 2 mg/kg/day for Crohn disease. Current medications: prednisone 20 mg by mouth daily (tapering). Pharmacogenomic results: TPMT *3A/*3A (no function). Labs: white blood cell count 6.2 x $10^3$/µL, hemoglobin 14.0 g/dL, platelets 250 x $10^3$/µL, alanine aminotransferase 19 units/L. Allergies: none. Which action should the pharmacist take considering the patient's pharmacogenomic profile?

Start azathioprine at 50% of the usual dose and monitor complete blood count weekly

Switch to mercaptopurine at standard dose because TPMT genotype applies only to azathioprine

Avoid azathioprine and recommend an alternative non-thiopurine therapy due to high myelosuppression risk

Start azathioprine at full dose because TPMT deficiency reduces efficacy

Explanation

This question tests the role of TPMT polymorphisms in thiopurine toxicity, particularly myelosuppression with azathioprine. The key genetic factor is the patient's TPMT *3A/*3A genotype, indicating no functional enzyme activity and high risk of severe toxicity due to accumulation of active metabolites. Avoiding azathioprine and recommending an alternative non-thiopurine therapy is the best choice to prevent life-threatening myelosuppression in this non-functional genotype. Starting at full dose is incorrect as TPMT deficiency increases toxicity, not reduces efficacy; starting at 50% dose is suboptimal for no-function genotypes, where thiopurines are contraindicated. Switching to mercaptopurine is inappropriate as TPMT genotype affects all thiopurines similarly, not just azathioprine. A clinical pearl is to avoid thiopurines entirely in TPMT poor metabolizers and consider biologics or other immunosuppressants for inflammatory bowel disease. For decision-making, genotype TPMT before thiopurine initiation and adjust doses downward for intermediate metabolizers while monitoring blood counts closely.

3

A 40-year-old White man (86 kg) with major depressive disorder is switching antidepressants due to persistent symptoms. Current medications include paroxetine 40 mg orally daily (for 8 weeks) and trazodone 50 mg orally at bedtime as needed for sleep; allergies: none; medical history includes generalized anxiety disorder and prior intolerable nausea with sertraline. Labs: serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL (estimated creatinine clearance 110 mL/min), alanine aminotransferase 20 units/L. Pharmacogenomic testing shows CYP2D6 ultrarapid metabolizer. Which medication is most appropriate for this patient given their genetic profile?

Paroxetine 60 mg orally daily

Fluoxetine 20 mg orally daily

Amitriptyline 50 mg orally at bedtime

Venlafaxine extended-release 75 mg orally daily

Explanation

This question evaluates antidepressant selection based on CYP2D6 metabolizer status. The patient is a CYP2D6 ultrarapid metabolizer currently on paroxetine, a CYP2D6 substrate that likely has reduced efficacy due to increased metabolism. Venlafaxine extended-release 75 mg daily is the best choice because it undergoes minimal CYP2D6 metabolism (primarily metabolized by CYP3A4) and would provide more consistent drug levels in an ultrarapid metabolizer. Paroxetine and fluoxetine are extensively metabolized by CYP2D6 and would likely fail due to rapid clearance, while amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant also metabolized by CYP2D6) would have unpredictable effects and higher side effect burden. The clinical principle is that CYP2D6 ultrarapid metabolizers often experience treatment failure with CYP2D6-dependent antidepressants and should preferentially receive antidepressants metabolized by other pathways like venlafaxine, mirtazapine, or bupropion.

4

A 28-year-old Thai woman (60 kg) presents to urgent care with fever, sore throat, and diffuse rash after starting allopurinol 300 mg orally daily 3 weeks ago for gout prophylaxis. Current medications include naproxen 500 mg orally twice daily as needed; allergy history is otherwise negative; medical history includes chronic kidney disease stage 3. Labs: serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL (estimated creatinine clearance 35 mL/min), alanine aminotransferase 55 units/L (high; normal 7–35), eosinophils 9% (high; normal 0–6%). Pharmacogenomic result obtained today: HLA-B*58:01 positive. Which action should the pharmacist take considering the patient's pharmacogenomic profile?

Reduce allopurinol to 100 mg daily because the reaction is dose-dependent in HLA-B*58:01 carriers

Discontinue allopurinol immediately and avoid future allopurinol use due to high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reactions

Switch to febuxostat only after confirming CYP2C19 poor metabolizer status

Continue allopurinol and add cetirizine because HLA-B*58:01 is not clinically actionable

Explanation

This question evaluates recognition of HLA-B58:01-associated allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome. The patient presents with classic features of allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome (fever, rash, eosinophilia, liver enzyme elevation) and is HLA-B58:01 positive, which increases the risk of severe cutaneous adverse reactions including Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis by 80-100 fold. Discontinuing allopurinol immediately and avoiding future use is the best choice because continued exposure can lead to life-threatening progression of the hypersensitivity reaction. Dose reduction does not mitigate the immune-mediated reaction in HLA-B58:01 carriers, and the reaction is not dose-dependent. The clinical principle is that HLA-B58:01 positive patients, particularly those of Asian descent or with chronic kidney disease, should avoid allopurinol entirely, and febuxostat represents a safe alternative for gout management in these patients.

5

A 58-year-old White male (92 kg) is seen for uncontrolled postoperative pain after dental surgery. Current medications: acetaminophen 1,000 mg by mouth every 8 hours as needed, ibuprofen 600 mg by mouth every 6 hours as needed, and codeine/acetaminophen 30 mg/300 mg by mouth every 6 hours as needed (reports no relief). Pharmacogenomic results: CYP2D6 *4/*4 (poor metabolizer). Labs: serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL, aspartate aminotransferase 22 units/L, alanine aminotransferase 25 units/L. Allergies: none. Which medication is most appropriate for this patient given their genetic profile?

Switch to hydrocodone/acetaminophen 5 mg/325 mg by mouth every 6 hours as needed for pain

Switch to tramadol 50 mg by mouth every 6 hours as needed for pain

Switch to morphine immediate-release 15 mg by mouth every 4 hours as needed for pain

Continue codeine/acetaminophen 30 mg/300 mg by mouth every 6 hours as needed because it is a prodrug and will be safer

Explanation

This question tests the impact of CYP2D6 polymorphisms on opioid prodrug activation and analgesic efficacy. The key genetic factor is the patient's CYP2D6 *4/*4 genotype, classifying them as a poor metabolizer with minimal enzyme activity. Switching to morphine immediate-release 15 mg by mouth every 4 hours as needed is the best choice because morphine is an active opioid that does not require CYP2D6-mediated conversion for efficacy, ensuring adequate pain relief in this poor metabolizer. Continuing codeine/acetaminophen is incorrect as codeine is a prodrug reliant on CYP2D6 for activation to morphine, leading to suboptimal analgesia in poor metabolizers; switching to tramadol is suboptimal because it also depends on CYP2D6 for conversion to its active metabolite O-desmethyltramadol. Switching to hydrocodone/acetaminophen is inappropriate as hydrocodone similarly requires CYP2D6 activation to hydromorphone, resulting in reduced efficacy. A clinical pearl is that for CYP2D6 poor metabolizers, select active opioids like morphine or fentanyl over prodrugs such as codeine, tramadol, or hydrocodone to optimize pain management. When applying pharmacogenomics, always consider the metabolic pathway of the drug and match it to the patient's genotype to avoid therapeutic failure or toxicity.

6

A 29-year-old Asian male (70 kg) is prescribed allopurinol for recurrent gout. Current medications: colchicine 0.6 mg by mouth daily. Pharmacogenomic results: HLA-B*58:01 positive. Labs: serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL, uric acid 9.8 mg/dL. Allergies: none. Which action should the pharmacist take considering the patient's pharmacogenomic profile?

Order CYP2C9 testing before starting allopurinol to prevent severe cutaneous reactions

Increase allopurinol starting dose to 300 mg by mouth daily to reduce flare risk

Dispense allopurinol 100 mg by mouth daily and counsel to stop if mild rash occurs

Recommend febuxostat as an alternative urate-lowering therapy and avoid allopurinol

Explanation

This question tests the association between HLA-B58:01 and allopurinol-induced severe cutaneous adverse reactions (SCARs) like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. The key genetic factor is the patient's positive HLA-B58:01 status, which significantly increases the risk of hypersensitivity reactions to allopurinol, particularly in Asian populations. Recommending febuxostat as an alternative urate-lowering therapy and avoiding allopurinol is the best choice to prevent potentially life-threatening SCARs in this high-risk genotype. Dispensing allopurinol 100 mg daily is incorrect as HLA-B58:01 positivity contraindicates its use, and stopping for mild rash does not mitigate severe risks; increasing to 300 mg daily is suboptimal because it heightens exposure and reaction risk without addressing the genetic predisposition. Ordering CYP2C9 testing is irrelevant as it pertains to warfarin metabolism, not allopurinol hypersensitivity. A transferable pearl is to screen for HLA-B58:01 before allopurinol initiation in at-risk ethnic groups like Asians. In practice, if positive, select alternatives like febuxostat or probenecid, and educate patients on early signs of hypersensitivity for any urate-lowering therapy.

7

A 58-year-old White man (92 kg) is seen in the anticoagulation clinic for initiation of warfarin for a new diagnosis of nonvalvular atrial fibrillation. Current medications include amlodipine 10 mg orally daily and atorvastatin 40 mg orally nightly; no known drug allergies; medical history includes hypertension and a prior gastrointestinal bleed 8 years ago. Baseline labs: serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL, estimated creatinine clearance 92 mL/min, alanine aminotransferase 22 units/L, aspartate aminotransferase 20 units/L, baseline international normalized ratio (INR) 1.0. Pharmacogenomic results: CYP2C9 *3/*3 and VKORC1 -1639 A/A. What dose adjustment is needed based on the patient's genetic test results?

Start warfarin 10 mg orally once daily and check INR in 5–7 days

Avoid warfarin due to CYP2C9 genotype and start rivaroxaban 20 mg orally once daily solely for pharmacogenomic reasons

Start warfarin 0.5–2 mg orally once daily with close INR monitoring and slower titration

Start warfarin 5 mg orally once daily and check INR in 3–5 days

Explanation

This question tests the application of CYP2C9 and VKORC1 pharmacogenomics to warfarin dosing. The patient has CYP2C9 *3/*3 (poor metabolizer) and VKORC1 -1639 A/A (increased warfarin sensitivity), both of which significantly reduce warfarin dose requirements. Starting warfarin 0.5-2 mg daily with close INR monitoring and slower titration is the best choice because patients with this genotype combination have approximately 75-80% reduction in warfarin dose requirements compared to wild-type patients. Standard dosing (5-10 mg) would lead to supratherapeutic INRs and bleeding risk, while avoiding warfarin solely for pharmacogenomic reasons is inappropriate when the drug can be safely used with dose adjustment. The clinical pearl is that patients with combined CYP2C9 poor metabolizer status and VKORC1 variant alleles require the most dramatic warfarin dose reductions, often needing less than 2 mg daily to achieve therapeutic INR.

8

A 66-year-old Hispanic woman (74 kg) is admitted for an unprovoked pulmonary embolism and is started on apixaban 10 mg orally twice daily for 7 days, then 5 mg orally twice daily. Current medications include sertraline 50 mg orally daily and hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg orally daily; allergies: none; medical history includes osteoarthritis and depression. Labs: serum creatinine 1.1 mg/dL (estimated creatinine clearance 55 mL/min), alanine aminotransferase 19 units/L, hemoglobin 13.6 g/dL. She asks if genetic testing is needed to ensure apixaban will work. What is the most important counseling point regarding the patient's genetic test results?

HLA-B*57:01 testing predicts apixaban bleeding risk and should be ordered

Genetic testing for CYP2C19 is required before apixaban because it is a prodrug

VKORC1 genotype determines apixaban dose and should be checked prior to discharge

Routine pharmacogenomic testing is not recommended for apixaban dosing; kidney function, age, and interacting drugs are more important

Explanation

This question tests understanding of pharmacogenomic relevance to direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs). The patient asks about genetic testing for apixaban, but routine pharmacogenomic testing is not recommended for apixaban dosing because apixaban is not a prodrug and its metabolism is not significantly affected by genetic polymorphisms. The best counseling point is that kidney function, age, body weight, and drug interactions are the primary determinants of apixaban dosing and safety, not genetic factors. CYP2C19 testing is irrelevant as apixaban is metabolized by CYP3A4/5, HLA-B*57:01 relates to abacavir hypersensitivity not bleeding risk, and VKORC1 affects warfarin not DOAC therapy. The clinical pearl is that unlike warfarin (affected by CYP2C9/VKORC1) or clopidogrel (affected by CYP2C19), DOACs like apixaban do not require pharmacogenomic testing for safe and effective use.

9

A 45-year-old Black woman (78 kg) presents for follow-up after an acute coronary syndrome treated with percutaneous coronary intervention and drug-eluting stent placement 2 days ago. Current medications include aspirin 81 mg orally daily, clopidogrel 75 mg orally daily, metoprolol succinate 50 mg orally daily, and rosuvastatin 20 mg orally nightly; allergy: penicillin (rash). Labs: hemoglobin 12.8 g/dL, platelets 240,000/mm$^3$, serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL (estimated creatinine clearance 88 mL/min), alanine aminotransferase 18 units/L. Pharmacogenomic test shows CYP2C19 *2/*2 (poor metabolizer). Which action should the pharmacist take considering the patient's pharmacogenomic profile?

Continue clopidogrel 75 mg daily because the stent indication outweighs pharmacogenomic considerations

Add omeprazole 20 mg orally daily to improve clopidogrel activation and reduce gastrointestinal risk

Order HLA-B*57:01 testing before continuing clopidogrel due to hypersensitivity risk

Switch clopidogrel to prasugrel 10 mg orally daily (if no contraindications) or ticagrelor 90 mg orally twice daily

Explanation

This question evaluates understanding of CYP2C19 pharmacogenomics in antiplatelet therapy following percutaneous coronary intervention. The patient is a CYP2C19 *2/2 poor metabolizer, which results in significantly reduced conversion of clopidogrel to its active metabolite and inadequate platelet inhibition. Switching to prasugrel 10 mg daily or ticagrelor 90 mg twice daily is the best choice because these P2Y12 inhibitors are not dependent on CYP2C19 for activation and provide consistent antiplatelet effects in poor metabolizers. Continuing clopidogrel despite poor metabolizer status increases the risk of stent thrombosis and recurrent cardiovascular events. Adding omeprazole would further reduce clopidogrel activation through CYP2C19 inhibition, and HLA-B57:01 testing is irrelevant to clopidogrel therapy. The key principle is that CYP2C19 poor metabolizers receiving clopidogrel after PCI should be switched to alternative P2Y12 inhibitors to ensure adequate antiplatelet protection.

10

A 47-year-old White female (66 kg) is being treated for neuropathic pain with amitriptyline. Current medications: amitriptyline 25 mg by mouth nightly (reports severe dry mouth and dizziness), lisinopril 10 mg by mouth daily. Pharmacogenomic results: CYP2D6 poor metabolizer and CYP2C19 normal metabolizer. Labs: serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL. Allergies: none. Which action should the pharmacist take considering the patient's pharmacogenomic profile?

Increase amitriptyline to 50 mg nightly because poor metabolizers have reduced effect

Consider an alternative agent (for example, duloxetine) or substantially reduce amitriptyline dose with close monitoring

Add omeprazole to improve amitriptyline tolerability in CYP2D6 poor metabolizers

Switch to nortriptyline at standard dose because CYP2D6 phenotype does not affect tricyclic antidepressants

Explanation

This question tests the effects of CYP2D6 and CYP2C19 polymorphisms on tricyclic antidepressant metabolism and adverse effects. The key genetic factor is the patient's CYP2D6 poor metabolizer status, resulting in reduced amitriptyline metabolism and increased risk of anticholinergic effects like dry mouth and dizziness. Considering an alternative agent like duloxetine or substantially reducing amitriptyline dose with close monitoring is the best choice to alleviate side effects while treating neuropathic pain effectively. Increasing to 50 mg is incorrect as poor metabolizers have higher exposure, not reduced effect, requiring lower doses; switching to nortriptyline is suboptimal because CYP2D6 affects all tricyclics similarly. Adding omeprazole is irrelevant as it inhibits CYP2C19, potentially worsening exposure. A clinical pearl is to avoid or dose-reduce tricyclics in CYP2D6 poor metabolizers, preferring SNRIs like duloxetine. For decision-making, integrate genotype with symptom monitoring to optimize antidepressant therapy and minimize toxicity.

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