Obstetrics and Gynecological Conditions - NCLEX-PN
Card 0 of 1140
Basal body temperature is determined by .
Basal body temperature is determined by .
The basal body temperature is a method many women use to determine when ovulation occurs. To take a basal body temperature, one must use a basal thermometer (which is more sensitive) and take their body temperature before getting out of bed (or even sitting up) each morning. This method is utilized the best if a woman wakes up and takes her temperature at the same time daily.
The basal body temperature is a method many women use to determine when ovulation occurs. To take a basal body temperature, one must use a basal thermometer (which is more sensitive) and take their body temperature before getting out of bed (or even sitting up) each morning. This method is utilized the best if a woman wakes up and takes her temperature at the same time daily.
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A nursing student is participating in clinical practice on a labor and delivery unit. He is learning how to measure contractions. He knows that contractions are measured by frequency, duration, and intensity. Which timeframe correctly describes how the student should measure the frequency of contractions?
A nursing student is participating in clinical practice on a labor and delivery unit. He is learning how to measure contractions. He knows that contractions are measured by frequency, duration, and intensity. Which timeframe correctly describes how the student should measure the frequency of contractions?
Increment is the beginning or rise of the contraction. Acme is the peak of the contraction. Decrement is the fall of the contraction. Frequency is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of another, so it should be measured from the increment of the first contraction to the increment of the second contraction.
Increment is the beginning or rise of the contraction. Acme is the peak of the contraction. Decrement is the fall of the contraction. Frequency is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of another, so it should be measured from the increment of the first contraction to the increment of the second contraction.
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While caring for a laboring patient, the nurse is called into the room because her patient felt a "gush" of fluid. Which of the following should be the nurse's next action?
While caring for a laboring patient, the nurse is called into the room because her patient felt a "gush" of fluid. Which of the following should be the nurse's next action?
The nurse must suspect rupture of the membranes (amniotic sac). Assess fetal heart rate if rupture of the membranes may have occurred. With rupture comes the potential for cord prolapse. Assess fetal heart rate for baseline variability. Marked variability may be cause for concern and the nurse should monitor the patient for signs of infection.
The nurse must suspect rupture of the membranes (amniotic sac). Assess fetal heart rate if rupture of the membranes may have occurred. With rupture comes the potential for cord prolapse. Assess fetal heart rate for baseline variability. Marked variability may be cause for concern and the nurse should monitor the patient for signs of infection.
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Which of the following tests may be used to assess the risk for neural tube defects in the fetus during pregnancy?
Which of the following tests may be used to assess the risk for neural tube defects in the fetus during pregnancy?
The alpha-fetal protein (AFP) test is the only test that can predict neural tube defects in a fetus during pregnancy. CVS can detect fetal karyotype, sickle-cell anemia, phenylketonuria (PKU), Down syndrome, and Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Amniocentesis can detect genetic disorders and lung maturity. Ultrasounds provide images of the fetal position, measurements of the fetus and placenta, and can confirm pregnancy and gestational age. Non-stress tests (NST) are used to record fetal heart rate to assess fetal well being after 28 weeks gestation.
The alpha-fetal protein (AFP) test is the only test that can predict neural tube defects in a fetus during pregnancy. CVS can detect fetal karyotype, sickle-cell anemia, phenylketonuria (PKU), Down syndrome, and Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Amniocentesis can detect genetic disorders and lung maturity. Ultrasounds provide images of the fetal position, measurements of the fetus and placenta, and can confirm pregnancy and gestational age. Non-stress tests (NST) are used to record fetal heart rate to assess fetal well being after 28 weeks gestation.
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Which of the following symptoms is not a danger sign of pregnancy?
Which of the following symptoms is not a danger sign of pregnancy?
It is important for the obstetric registered nurse to recognize the following danger signs of pregnancy: profuse vaginal bleeding, severe headaches/visual disturbances/abdominal pain, persistent vomiting, fever, chills, or swelling in the face or fingers. These may be signs of placental abnormalities, hypertensive disorders or pregnancy, maternal infection, or hyperemesis. Increased urination may be concerning to some women, but during pregnancy, the increased mass of the uterus induces pressure upon the bladder.
It is important for the obstetric registered nurse to recognize the following danger signs of pregnancy: profuse vaginal bleeding, severe headaches/visual disturbances/abdominal pain, persistent vomiting, fever, chills, or swelling in the face or fingers. These may be signs of placental abnormalities, hypertensive disorders or pregnancy, maternal infection, or hyperemesis. Increased urination may be concerning to some women, but during pregnancy, the increased mass of the uterus induces pressure upon the bladder.
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What is the proper management of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US) or low grade intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) in women age 21-24?
What is the proper management of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US) or low grade intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) in women age 21-24?
ASC-US or LSIL in women age 21-24 should be managed by repeat cytology in one year. Neither cervical conization nor LEEP (loop electrosurgical excision procedure) would be appropriate in a patient of this age or presentation.
ASC-US or LSIL in women age 21-24 should be managed by repeat cytology in one year. Neither cervical conization nor LEEP (loop electrosurgical excision procedure) would be appropriate in a patient of this age or presentation.
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What follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) levels would be present in a patient with premature ovarian failure?
What follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) levels would be present in a patient with premature ovarian failure?
Premature ovarian failure is the loss of ovarian function in an individual under the age of 40. A 
and 
would be indicative of this condition.
Premature ovarian failure is the loss of ovarian function in an individual under the age of 40. A
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What are the signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy?
What are the signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy?
The most common symptoms of ectopic pregnancy are moderate to severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Pain may be cramping or sharp. Bleeding can be heavy and the individual can even begin to bleed into their abdominal cavity. Ectopic pregnancy is not consistent with fetal survival and requires treatment with methotrexate or, in the case of bleeding, surgery may be indicated.
The most common symptoms of ectopic pregnancy are moderate to severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Pain may be cramping or sharp. Bleeding can be heavy and the individual can even begin to bleed into their abdominal cavity. Ectopic pregnancy is not consistent with fetal survival and requires treatment with methotrexate or, in the case of bleeding, surgery may be indicated.
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A patient tells her nurse that since week twenty six of her current pregnancy, she has been experiencing a raised, itchy red rash on her abdomen and chest. This is her first pregnancy. She has never had this before and she has made no other changes in diet, detergents, or lifestyle. Which of the following might describe her condition?
A patient tells her nurse that since week twenty six of her current pregnancy, she has been experiencing a raised, itchy red rash on her abdomen and chest. This is her first pregnancy. She has never had this before and she has made no other changes in diet, detergents, or lifestyle. Which of the following might describe her condition?
The most likely cause of her rash is pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP), a condition affecting about 1 in every 200 pregnancies. While she could be having an allergic reaction (dermatitis herpetiformis or urticaria) or an inflammatory eruption such as heat rash, these are less likely due to their absence before pregnancy and the absence of any significant changes in her diet or lifestyle.
The most likely cause of her rash is pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP), a condition affecting about 1 in every 200 pregnancies. While she could be having an allergic reaction (dermatitis herpetiformis or urticaria) or an inflammatory eruption such as heat rash, these are less likely due to their absence before pregnancy and the absence of any significant changes in her diet or lifestyle.
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How is glomerular filtration rate (GFR) affected during a normal pregnancy?
How is glomerular filtration rate (GFR) affected during a normal pregnancy?
In the average normal pregnancy, the GFR increases by upwards of 50%. This correlates with an overall 50% increase in blood plasma volume.
In the average normal pregnancy, the GFR increases by upwards of 50%. This correlates with an overall 50% increase in blood plasma volume.
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The term placenta previa describes which of the following conditions?
The term placenta previa describes which of the following conditions?
In placenta previa, the placenta develops in such a way that all or part of it is positioned in the lower one-third of the uterus, placing it between the fetus and the cervix. This can cause the placenta to tear and bleed. The most common sign is painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester (generally after week 32).
In placenta previa, the placenta develops in such a way that all or part of it is positioned in the lower one-third of the uterus, placing it between the fetus and the cervix. This can cause the placenta to tear and bleed. The most common sign is painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester (generally after week 32).
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A 25 year old female primigravida presents to the clinic for a prenatal visit and is concerned with new onset skin changes she has noticed lately. The nurse caring for this client is aware that there are several skin changes associated with pregnancy.
All of the following are skin changes associated with pregnancy except .
A 25 year old female primigravida presents to the clinic for a prenatal visit and is concerned with new onset skin changes she has noticed lately. The nurse caring for this client is aware that there are several skin changes associated with pregnancy.
All of the following are skin changes associated with pregnancy except .
Hegar's sign is indicated by a softening of the portion of the uterus between the uterus and a portion of the cervix. The remaining choices are all examples of various skin discolorations commonly associated with pregnancy.
Hegar's sign is indicated by a softening of the portion of the uterus between the uterus and a portion of the cervix. The remaining choices are all examples of various skin discolorations commonly associated with pregnancy.
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Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
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Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
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What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
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What treatment can prevent the development of sensitization to Rh-D antigen in an Rh negative mother carrying an Rh positive fetus?
What treatment can prevent the development of sensitization to Rh-D antigen in an Rh negative mother carrying an Rh positive fetus?
Rh sensitization can be prevented by treatment of an Rh negative mother with Rho(D) immunoglobulin at 28 weeks, then again within 72 hours of delivery. This is a solution of IgG antibody to Rh-D, which is able to destroy any fetal red blood cells that enter the mother's bloodstream before her own immune system is able to form develop a sensitization.
Rh sensitization can be prevented by treatment of an Rh negative mother with Rho(D) immunoglobulin at 28 weeks, then again within 72 hours of delivery. This is a solution of IgG antibody to Rh-D, which is able to destroy any fetal red blood cells that enter the mother's bloodstream before her own immune system is able to form develop a sensitization.
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A nurse working in labor and delivery is caring for a client that has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix. The client has been informed by the physician she is now at risk for a spontaneous abortion. The client asks the nurse about possible interventions.
The nurse is aware the procedure performed for an incompetent cervix is called .
A nurse working in labor and delivery is caring for a client that has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix. The client has been informed by the physician she is now at risk for a spontaneous abortion. The client asks the nurse about possible interventions.
The nurse is aware the procedure performed for an incompetent cervix is called .
A Shirodkar procedure involves sewing a suture in and around the cervix to hold it closed. This is usually performed within the first trimester and later removed when the risk of miscarriage has lessened.
A Shirodkar procedure involves sewing a suture in and around the cervix to hold it closed. This is usually performed within the first trimester and later removed when the risk of miscarriage has lessened.
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A pregnant woman at 43 weeks gestation is having labor augmented with oxytocin infusion. Which of the following best categorizes this particular drug?
A pregnant woman at 43 weeks gestation is having labor augmented with oxytocin infusion. Which of the following best categorizes this particular drug?
Oxytocin is often used to help augment labor by inducing contractions. This hormone is naturally made in the body and works as an anti-diuretic hormone (thus promotes the excretion of water). In labor, this hormone also works to stimulate uterine contractiity.
Oxytocin is often used to help augment labor by inducing contractions. This hormone is naturally made in the body and works as an anti-diuretic hormone (thus promotes the excretion of water). In labor, this hormone also works to stimulate uterine contractiity.
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Jean is a 33-year-old woman who has previously had regular periods but has not gotten her period for six months. Which of the following would the nurse rule out as the cause?
Jean is a 33-year-old woman who has previously had regular periods but has not gotten her period for six months. Which of the following would the nurse rule out as the cause?
Yoga once per week (light exercise) is the least likely of the above to cause a change in regular menstruation. Cross country or long distance running (vigorous exercise) is more likely to cause changes to a woman's cycle. Poor lifestyle choices such as eating habits and health issues such as kidney disease can also cause irregular menstruation. Likewise, pharmaceuticals can have the same effect.
Yoga once per week (light exercise) is the least likely of the above to cause a change in regular menstruation. Cross country or long distance running (vigorous exercise) is more likely to cause changes to a woman's cycle. Poor lifestyle choices such as eating habits and health issues such as kidney disease can also cause irregular menstruation. Likewise, pharmaceuticals can have the same effect.
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Jody is a 40-year-old woman seeking care for dysmenorrhea for the first time. Which would not be considered an appropriate treatment?
Jody is a 40-year-old woman seeking care for dysmenorrhea for the first time. Which would not be considered an appropriate treatment?
There are many different ways to treat painful periods (dysmenorrhea). Ibuprofen and naproxen are anti-inflammatory agents that do not require a prescription and can be very effective. They have relatively few side effects. Lifestyle modification (such as exercise) is another good alternative. The use of oral contraceptives are also frequently used to give women lighter and milder periods. Percocet is not generally used because it is an opioid analgesic and not recommended for long term use because they carry potential for addiction.
There are many different ways to treat painful periods (dysmenorrhea). Ibuprofen and naproxen are anti-inflammatory agents that do not require a prescription and can be very effective. They have relatively few side effects. Lifestyle modification (such as exercise) is another good alternative. The use of oral contraceptives are also frequently used to give women lighter and milder periods. Percocet is not generally used because it is an opioid analgesic and not recommended for long term use because they carry potential for addiction.
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